At Apology (41d) Socrates says that a 'good-natured man is not harmed in condition or demise'. Throughout the tete-a-tete he as-well discusses his 'divine sign' which prevents him from winning in crime doing. In another tete-a-tete the Gorgias Socrates says that 'doing what's disingenuous is in-effect the conquer art tclose is' and that it is meliorate to undergo inadequateness then to do it (Gorg. 469b-c). These ideas seemed extremely counter-intuitive to Socrates' own reception and may-be level over so to our own way of thinking. Since at last the date of Thomas Hobbes an marrow has been placed on 'self-preservation' as a hallmark of reasonableness. Yet close in the Apology Socrates deliberately responds to the jury in a way that imperils his condition. Tclose are two doubts close which can be fascinated in revolve or individually. 1)Is Socrates conduct irfair in the way that he acts anteriorly the jury; would it feel been over fair for him to act in another way(Apol. 36a-39e)? 2) Is Socrates rectify that good-tempered-natured-natured man can't be harmed in condition or demise? in what perception is this penny? if at all? level if the good-tempered-natured-natured man is not harmed by others, could one be disingenuous to one's wilful by not adequately defending oneself? is Socrates corrupt of this class of inadequateness as Crito seems to adumbrate (Crito 45c-d)? Respond to any or all of the aloft and end your posting delay a doubt of your own.
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